separation of the Railway Budget from the
General Budget of India are correct?
1. To introduce flexibility in railway
finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the
railway policy
3. To secure stability of the general
revenues by providing an assured
annual contribution from railway
revenues
4. To enable the railways to keep their
profits for their own development
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 2, 3 and 4 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. d
2. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it
contains only provisions dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money
by the government
3. appropriation of moneys out of the
Consolidated Fund of India
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of
India
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. d
3. Which one of the following statements is
correct with regard to the powers of the
Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
a. It can increase a tax, but not reduce it
b. It can increase a tax as well as reduce
or abolish it
c. It cannot increase a tax, but can reduce
or abolish it
d. It can neither increase a tax nor reduce
it
e. c
4. Which of the following statements are
correct in respect of parliamentary debate
on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the
amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold
permission on matters of repetitive
nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or
reject the Bill.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. a
5. To which of the following, the 74th
Constitutional Amendment has not paid
attention?
1. Municipal personnel system
2. Constitution and composition of
municipality
3. Relations between elected executive
and bureaucracy
4. Relations between municipal
government and para-statals
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. *
6. Which of the following is/are correct in
respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual
Minister,
2. It covers questions raised over matters
of public importance.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. b
7. Through which of the following is judicial
control over administration in India
exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
e. c
8. Which of the following statements is/are
correct of the writ of prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court
commanding a lower court to cease
from proceeding in some matters not
within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party
as a matter of right.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. a
9. In which among the following countries is
Charter Mark Programme being
effectively used to evaluate the
performance of government agencies
through outside independent agencies?
a. Japan
b. France
c. Great Britain
d. USA
e. c
10. ‘Poly-communalism’ is the term coined by
Fred Riggs to describe
a. integrated society
b. plural society
c. diffracted society
d. parochial society
e. b
11. The ‘Collegial’ type of executive can be
found in which one of the following
countries?
a. Japan
b. France
c. Switzerland
d. Great Britain
e. b
12. On which of the following factors does
people’s participation depend for its
success in influencing the governance
process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness of the people to participate
3. Opportunity to the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 4 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. d
13. According to Chester Barnard, which of
the following are the characteristics of
organizational decisions?
1. They are impersonal.
2. They cannot be delegated.
3. They are specialized.
4. They result from logical thought
processes.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 3 and 4 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. a
14. Chester Barnard’s concept of ‘zone of
indifference’ refers to orders that are
a. barely unacceptable
b. just about acceptable
c. unquestionably acceptable
d. not always acceptable
e. c
15. Consider the following statements Human
relations theory
1. views organization as a psychological
and social system
2. takes the social view of man
3. emphasizes the physiological and
mechanical aspects of organization
4. assumes that people are homogeneous
Which of the statements given above are
not correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
e. a
16. Which one of the following experiments
was not included in the Hawthorne
experiments?
a. Bank wiring observation room
b. Relay assembly test room
c. Cutting metals
d. Great illumination
e. c
17. Consider the following statements
Hawthorne studies showed that workers
had devised norms for the output of a
group as one should not be a
1. rate-buster
2. chiseller
3. squealer
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. b
18. Which of the following statements are
correct?
The behavioural approach is considered to
be
1. a humane approach
2. based on Hawthorne findings
3. largely concerned with decisionmaking
4. the dominant approach in the pre-
World War I period
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. c
19. Which of the following is correct about
systems approach?
a. Emphasizes the static structure of the
organization
b. Considers mainly the formal structure
of the organization
c. Explains human motivation in terms of
several factors
d. Views organizational order as being
imposed from the top
e. c
20. Which of the following authors can be
credited with the earliest systematic use of
social systems approach in administrative
studies?
a. F. J. Roethlisberger and W. J. Dickson
b. John M. Pfiffner
c. Mary Parker Follett
d. Frank J. Goodnow
e. c
21. Which one of the following is not correct
with regard to the systems theory of
organization?
a. A system is characterized by parts and
sub-parts
b. A change in one part affects changes in
other parts
c. A system is characterized by dynamic
disequilibrium
d. A system is open and interactive
e. c
22. To which of the following notions of the
man in an organizational setup does the
concept of bounded rationality relate more
closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
e. c
23. Match List–I with List–II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List–I (Advocate)
A. Herbert Simon
B. Charles Lindblom
C. Amitai Etzioni
List–II (Model)
1. Mixed-scanning model
2. Economic rationality model
3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
a. 2 3 4
b. 3 2 1
c. 2 1 3
d. 3 4 1
e. d
24. According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the
following characteristics of the optimal
model of policy making help man in
understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra
rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic
rationality.
3. It contains a built-in feedback system.
4. It adopts the methodology of logical
positivism.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. a
25. Who among the following have advocated
the public policy aspect of Public
Administration?
1. H. Walker
2. M. E. Dimock
3. F. A. Nigro
4. J. W. Fesler
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4
e. *
26. Who among the following views Public
Administration as the art and science of
management as applied to the affairs of the
State?
a. John Mc Veigh
b. Luther Gulick
c. D. Waldo
d. J. M. Pfiffner
e. c
27. According to Graicunas law of
relationships, if the number of
subordinates in an organization is 8, which
one of the following is the span of total
relationships?
a. 100
b. 490
c. 1080
d. 2376
e. c
28. Match List–I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List-I (Scholar)
A. F. A. Nigro
B. H. Fayol
C. P. Appleby
D. D. Waldo
List-II (Significance of Public
Administration)
1. Its real core consists of the basic
services
2. A great creative force with men’s
welfare as its ideal
3. No government can exist without it
4. Its processes are universal
5. Its chief function is to facilitate social
change
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 5 1 3 4
c. 4 5 2 1
d. 1 4 3 2
e. d
29. Match List–I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List–I (Approach to Study of Public
Administration)
A. Philosophical approach
B. Historical approach
C. Legal approach
D. Case study approach
List-II (Explanation)
1. Uses administrative realties and
acquaints the scholars with them
2. Interprets the information to
pertaining to a administrative
agencies in chronologies order
3. Deals with formal structure,
organization, power and
functions of public authorities.
4. Considers all facets of
administrative activities.
Codes:
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 2 3 1
e. d
30. Which one of the following is not a
conceptual approach in Comparative
Public Administration as identified by
Ferrel Heady?
a. Cybernetics approach
b. Modified traditional approach
c. Development-administration approach
d. General systems approach
e. a
31. Which one of the following is not a trait of
post-modern theory of Public
Administration?
a. Critical theory
b. Structuration theory
c. Phenomenology
d. Meta-narrativism
e. b
32. Which one of the following is not a
characteristic of ‘Sala model’ of prismatic
society?
a. Nepotism
b. Entrepreneurship
c. Clects
d. Functional diffusion
e. b
33. What does ‘Bazar-Canteen model’
represent?
a. Marketization in new public
management
b. Economic sub-system of prismatic
society
c. Financial system of fused authority
d. Economic freedom under publicprivate
partnership
e. b
34. Which of the following models of Fred
Riggs is/are nearest in focus to Max
Weber’s Traditional Authority System?
a. Agraria only
b. Fused only
c. Agraria and Fused
d. Industria
e. c
35. Which one of the following principles of
Henri Fayol is in contrast to F. W.
Taylor’s concept of functional authority?
a. Discipline
b. Hierarchy
c. Departmentalization
d. Unity of command
e. d
36. Identify the incorrect statement
According to Ferrel Heady, the developing
countries
a. have imitative and unindigenous
bureaucracies
b. do not permit functional autonomy to
their public services
c. have administrative services without
administrative development
d. have elitist bureaucracies which are
dysfunctional
e. b
37. Which of the following are the defining
features of Public Administration
according to Sir Josiah Stamp?
1. Uniformity of rules
2. Political accountability
3. Lack of ethics in business practices
4. Matrix structure of organizations
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only
e. c
38. Which of the following concepts find
prominence in public choice theory?
1. Competition
2. Efficiency
3. Public Utility Maximization
4. Marketization
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 4
e. a
39. In the context of State v/s Market debate,
which of the following statements are
correct?
1. It has a concern for institutional
pluralism in the provision of public
goods and services.
2. It promotes consumers’ preferences.
3. It has given rise to market orientation.
4. It emphasizes the role of Public
Administration as the major provider
of goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
e. c
40. Which one of the following is not
propounded by F. W. Taylor?
a. Differential piece rate system
b. Time and motion study
c. Unity of command
d. Shop management
e. c
41. Recruitment to the higher civil services in
India is based on the recommendations of
which of the following Committee/
Commission Reports?
1. Paul Appleby
2. Macaulay
3. Hanumanthaiah
4. D. S. Kothari
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4 only
e. d
42. Which one of the following statements is
not correct with regard to the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
a. The CAG has been awarded a fully
independent status
b. The CAG can only be removed on the
recommendation of the President
c. The salary and emoluments of the
CAG are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India
d. The tenure of CAG is fixed for six
years
e. b
43. A Member of the UPSC may be removed
on the ground of misbehavior by
a. both the Houses of parliament by way
of impeachment
b. the President on the basis of enquiry by
the Supreme Court
c. the Chairman of the UPSC
d. the Prime Minister on the basis of the
recommendation of the Cabinet
e. b
44. Consider the following statements with
respect to duties of the Prime Minister
according to the Constitution of India
1. To make rules for the more convenient
transaction of business of the Govt. of
India, and for the allocation among
Ministers of the said business.
2. If the President so required, to submit
for consideration of the Council of
ministers any on which a decision has
been taken by a minister but which has
not been considered by the Council.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. b
45. Which one of the following is the correct
chronological order of the
Committee/Commission Reports?
a. Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-
Islington
b. Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton- Islington-
Lee
c. Macaulay-Aitchison-Islington-
Fulton
d. Islington-Aitchison-Lee-
Macaulay
e. c
46. Which one of the following features does
not necessarily apply to generalist
administration in India?
a. They are trained professionals in
administration
b. They have been educated in technical
disciplines
c. They can head or work in any
government department
d. They have a broader view of
administration
e. b
47. Which one of the following is not correct
in respect of the Governor’s Ordinancemaking
power?
a. It is exercised only when the
Legislature is not in session
b. It is a discretionary power which need
not be exercised with the aid and
advice of Ministers
c. The Governor himself is competent to
withdraw the Ordinance at any time
d. The scope of the Ordinance-making
power is limited to subjects in List II
and List III of Schedule VII
e. b
48. Which one of the following statements,
with regard to the State Legislature, is not
correct?
a. The Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible to the
Governor
b. Under Article 167 of the Constitution
of India, the Chief Minister has to
communicate to the Governor all
decisions of the Council of Ministers
relating to the administration of the
affairs of the State and proposals for
legislation
c. Once the Governor reserves a Bill for
the consideration of the President, the
subsequent enactment of the Bill is in
the hands of the President and the
Governor shall have no further part in
its career
d. The executive power of the State is
vested in the Governor and all
executive actions of the State has to be
taken in the name of the Governor
e. a
49. Which one of the following statements is
not correct with regard to the Cabinet
Secretary of India?
a. The office of the Cabinet Secretary
was created in the year 1950
b. The Cabinet Secretary is the principal
secretary to the Prime Minister
c. The Cabinet Secretary provides
secretarial assistance to all Cabinet
committees
d. Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is
fixed for five years
e. d
50. Which of the following statements with
respect to State Level Directorate is/are
correct?
1. It is always headed by a specialist.
2. It is a line organization.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. c
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List-I
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Warren Hastings
C. William Bentinck
D. Lord Cornwallis
List—II
1. Created the post of Civil Judge
2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
3. Created the office of District Collector
4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 1 4 3 2
e. c
52. Which one of the following recommended
the separation of regulatory and
development functions at the district level?
a. Dantwalla Committee
b. Hanumantha Rao Committee
c. Administrative Reforms Commission
d. G. V. K. Rao Committee
e. b
53. Consider the following statements:
The Prime Minister as the head of the
Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of
portfolios
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any
Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day
administration of Ministries
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
e. a
54. The Administrative Reforms Commission
(1966) recommended the establishment of
‘Lokpal’ in India on the lines of
Ombudsman of which of the following
countries?
1. Finland
2. Denmark
3. Norway
4. Switzerland
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
e. c
55. Mayor-in-Council form of Municipal
Corporation is
a. brought in by the 74th Constitutional
Amendment Act
b. based on the theory of separation of
powers
c. akin to Cabinet form of government
d. based on the American local
government pattern
e. d
56. Consider the following statements:
State Finance Commissions
1. receive grants directly from the
Finance Commission set up by the
Union Government
2. review the economic conditions of the
various Panchayati Raj Institutions and
Municipal Bodies in the State
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. b
57. Consider the following statements:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
provided
1. for 27% reservation of seats at the
Panchayats for the Other Backward
Castes (OBCs)
2. that the Chairpersons of the Panchayats
at intermediate or district level, shall
be elected by, and from amongst the
elected members thereof
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. b
58. Assertion (A): A system constantly reacts
to the outside environment and undergoes
a process of change.
Reason (R): A system has an inherent
survivability instinct, which increases its
capacity to face changes.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
e. a
59. Assertion (A): Coordination is both a
positive and a negative concept.
Reason (R): Coordination prevents
disharmony, inefficiency, wastage and
conflict in an organization.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
e. a
60. Assertion (A): Governor can withhold
non-Money Bill passed by the Legislature.
Reason (R): Governors are empowered by
the Article 200 of the Constitution of India
to do so.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
e. c
61. Assertion (A): Conventional Public
Administration is based upon the
dichotomy of politics and administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in
India and Britain is opposed to any
political role of civil servants.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
e. b
62. Assertion (A): Functional supervision
runs counter to the principle of unity of
command.
Reason (R): Unity of command is helpful
in attaining the unity of direction.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
e. b
63. Which of the following is/are not correct
in respect of the Right to Information Act,
2005?
1. Information in respect of allegation of
violation of human rights can be
obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party
information.
3. Total penalty for not providing
information shall not exceed Rs 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the
Central/State Public Information
Officer can be made to officers of
higher rank,
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 3 only
b. 1 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. a
64. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists
List-I (Committee/Commission)
A. Macaulay Committee
B. Aitchison Commission
C. Tottenham Committee
D. Islington Commission
List-II (Recommendation)
1. Classification of civil services
2. Changes in staffing pattern of Central
Secretariat
3. Competitive examination for
recruitment to civil services
4. Establishment of Public Service
Commission
5. Promotion of provincial civil services
members to ICS
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 5
b. 5 4 2 3
c. 5 4 1 3
d. 3 1 5 2
e. a
65. Which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India provides provision
for the creation of All India Services?
a. Article 300
b. Article 312
c. Article 320
d. Article 321
e. b
66. Which of the following Constitutional
Amendment Acts has/have made the
decisions of the Council of Ministers
binding on the President of India?
a. 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts
b. 43rd Amendment Act
c. 40th Amendment Act only
d. 40th and 41st Amendment Acts
e. a
67. Which of the following are the functions
of the Cabinet according to the Haldane
Committee Report (1918)?
1. The final determination of the policy to
be submitted to the Parliament
2. The supreme control of the National
Executive in accordance with the
policy agreed by the Parliament
3. Recommendation of important policies
to the Prime Minister for his/her final
decision
4. The continuous coordination and
delimitation of the authority of the
several departments of the State
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 only
e. **
68. Which of the following statements with
regard to the Prime Minister’s Office
(PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a
department under the Government of
India Allocation of Business Rules,
1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over
all such subjects and activities as are
not specially allotted to any individual
department.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. c
69. Consider the following statements
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government
planning
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
e. a
70. Which of the following accounts is/are not
maintained by the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India?
1. The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 2 only
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2
e. b
71. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
a. There are two categories of “Mini
Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs)
in India
b. The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly
owned subsidiaries
c. The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise
capital from the international market
d. The Mini Ratna PSEs can induct nonofficial
directors
e. c
72. Which of the following trends are
emerging in Public Sector Enterprises in
India due to the impact of liberalization?
1. Strengthening the operational
autonomy
2. Encouraging competition with private
sector
3. Motivating competition among public
enterprises themselves
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. d
73. On which of the following matters does
the Finance Commission make
recommendations to the President of
India?
1. The distribution between Union and
States of net proceeds of taxes and
allocation between the States of their
respective shares of such proceeds
2. The principles which should govern
the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the
States out of the Consolidated Fund of
India
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. c
74. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Election Commission of
India
1. The terms of office of the Election
Commissioners is the same as the
Chairman of the Union Public Service
Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion
amongst the Chief Election
Commissioner and/or other Election
Commissioners, the matter is referred
to the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election
Commission and its insulation from
executive interference is ensured by a
special provision under Article 324(5)
of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
e. b
75. Which among the following countries does
not have a Central Civil Service
Commission charged with the
responsibility for recruitment to the higher
civil service?
a. Canada
b. Great Britain
c. USA
d. France
e. b
76. According to Chester Barnard, the strength
of administrative authority lies in the zone
of
a. acceptance
b. resistance
c. indifference
d. anticipated reactions
e. c
77. Consider the following statements:
According to Henri Fayol, decentralization
is greater when
1. policy decisions are made at lower
levels
2. important decisions are made at lower
levels
3. more functions are affected by
decisions at lower levels
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
e. b
78. Which one of the following is a
Parliamentary Standing Committee?
a. Committee on Draft Five-Year Plan
b. Railway Convention Committee
c. Business Advisory Committee
d. Joint Committee on Fertilizer Pricing
e. c
79. According to Henri Fayol, which of the
following actions are required in
supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only
e. b
80. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List-I (item)
A. Constitution of Municipalities
B. Reservation of seats
C. Finance Commission
D. Duration of Municipalities, etc.
List-II (Article as per the 74th
Constitutional Amendment Act)
1. Article 243Q
2. Article 243T
3. Article 243Y
4. Article 243U
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 3 2 4
e. b
81. The legacy of British rule in India includes
which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil
Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. d
82. Consider the following statements :
Classical theory of administration
emphasizes
1. formal organizational structure
2. need for citizen participation in
governance and administration
3. principles of hierarchy, division of
work and span of control
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 only
e. d
83. Who among the following have been harsh
critics of bureaucracy ‘as an instrument of
government’?
1. Harold Laski and Peter Drucker
2. Warren Bennis and Robert Reich
3. Ralph Braibanti and Sardar Patel
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 only
e. d
84. Which one of the following is not a
characteristic feature of Weberian
bureaucracy?
a. Neutral competence
b. Professional hierarchy
c. Auto-administration
d. Legal rationalism
e. c
85. Which one of the following thinkers was
first to talk about the concept of
‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
a. Elton Mayo
b. Mary Parker Follett
c. Peter Blau
d. Henri Fayol
e. b
86. Match List–I with List–II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List–I (Critic of Weber)
A. Alvin Gouldner
B. Robert Presthus
C. James March
List—II (Point of Criticism)
1. Internal contradictions
2. Product of alien culture
3. Lack of flexibility
4. Behavioural elements ignored
Code:
A B C
a. 2 3 1
b. 1 2 3
c. 2 4 3
d. 1 3 4
e. b
87. Who among the following subscribed to
the ‘non-coercive’ theory of organization?
a. George Frederickson
b. Frank Marini
c. Dwight Waldo
d. Frederick Thayer
e. **
88. Which of the following are the
contributions of Mary Parker Follett?
1. Circular behaviour
2. Integrative unity
3. Law of the situation
4. Strategic limiting factor
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. a
89. Which of the following are propounded by
the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
A person in an organization
1. exercises self-direction in the service
of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a
function of rewards
3. inherently likes work
4. has a capacity for imagination,
ingenuity and creativity
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 4 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4 only
e. c
90. Which one of the following leadership
styles was identified by the Michigan
University Leadership Studies as the most
effective leadership style?
a. Democratic style leadership
b. Employee-centered leadership
c. Participative group leadership
d. Team leadership
e. b
91. Who among the following has observed
that instead of hierarchy of needs,
motivation should be understood in terms
of series of needs?
a. Chester Barnard
b. David McClelland
c. Abraham Maslow
d. Warren Bennis
e. b
92. According to Frederick Herzberg, the
determinants of job dissatisfaction include
1. working conditions
2. supervision
3. salary
4. responsibility
5. recognition
Which of the above are correct?
a. 4 and 5 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3 and 5 on1y
e. b
93. Match List–I with List–II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists
List-I (Commission/ Committee)
A. First Hoover Commission
B. Assheton Committee
C. Brownlow Committee
D. Fulton Committee
List-II (Recommendation)
1. Division of training and education
2. Reorganization of US President’s
office
3. Senior policy advisors
4. Senior executive service
5. Office of general services
administration
Code
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 5 1 2 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 3 4 5 2
e. b
94. Which one of the following shows the
correct sequence of the four basic steps in
the position classification plan?
a. Job analysis—Grouping of positions—
Standardization— Position allocation
b. Standardization—Job analysis—
Grouping of positions—Position
allocation
c. Grouping of positions—Job analysis—
Position allocation— Standardization
d. Job analysis—Grouping of positions—
Position allocation— Standardization
e. a
95. According to W. F. Willoughby, which of
the following are correct about the
essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications
setting forth the duties and
qualifications required for all positions
in a government service
2. Classification of all positions into
distinct classes, grades and services
based on duty classification
3. The inclusion within this classification
of all administrative positions except
those having a political character
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
e. a
96. Which of the following scholars has/have
not laid any marked emphasis on
administrative ethics?
a. Paul Appleby
b. Frederick Mosher
c. Chanakya
d. David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
e. d*
97. Which of the following was not identified
by the Santhanam Committee as a major
cause of corruption in India?
a. Administrative delays
b. Scope for personnel discretion in the
exercise of powers
c. Cumbersome procedures
d. Absence of regulatory functions of the
government
e. d
98. By which one of the following Acts, are
the political activities of civil servants in
the USA regulated?
a. The Hatch Act of 1939
b. The Civil Service Act of 1883
c. The Ramspeck Act of 1940
d. The Taft-Hartley Act of 1947
e. a
99. The office of the Ombudsman like
institution in the form of Parliamentary
Commissioner for Administration in the
United Kingdom was set up on the
recommendations of which one of the
following Reports?
a. Sir John Whyatt Report
b. Northcote-Trevelyan Report
c. Fulton Report
d. Aitchison Report
e. a
100. Which one of the following statements in
respect of the French Civil Service is not
correct?
a. ENA is concerned with the training of
technical personnel
b. Basic unit of organization of the civil
service is called Corps
c. French Civil Service is elitist
d. Civil servants are allowed to take leave
and contest for political offices
e. a
101. Which of the following local government
units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 4 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3 only
e. c
102. The Amakudan system in respect of the
civil service in Japan is
a. post-retirement assignment
b. professional training
c. foreign posting
d. monetary compensation
e. a
103. Which of the following statements
regarding civil services in Japan is/are
correct?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal
controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is
elitist.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
e. a
104. Who among the following has focused on
the politics of the budgetary process?
a. Robert Golembiewski
b. Aaron Wildavsky
c. Jesse Birkhead
d. A. Premchand
e. **
105. Which of the following is/are
advantage/advantages of zero-based
budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low
priority programmes.
2. It improves the programme
effectiveness.
3. It facilitates critical review of schemes
in terms of their cost effectiveness and
cost benefits.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. d
106. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High
Court
2. debt charges for which the
Government of India is liable
3. salary, allowances and pension payable
to Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
e. a
107. Identify the correct order of stages in
decision-making, as identified by Herbert
Simon
a. Design activity—Choice activity—
Intelligence activity
b. Intelligence activity—Design
activity—Choice activity
c. Choice activity—Design activity—
Intelligence activity
d. Intelligence activity—Choice
activity—Design activity
e. b
108. Consider the following statements:
New Public Administration
1. upholds social equity
2. favours ethics-centric public policies
3. advocates centralized structures
4. stands for value-based goals
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
e. c
109. Which one of the following has been
suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative
to scalar chain?
a. Dual command
b. Unity of direction
c. Gangplank
d. Esprit de corps
e. c
110. Which of the following are the salient
characteristics of neo-liberalism that have
promoted new public management?
1. Welfare State
2. Individual Liberty
3. Market Mechanism
4. Privatization
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 4
e. d
111. Consider the following statements:
The discourse theory of post-modern
Public Administration as propounded by
Fox and Miller believes in
1. pluralistic perspective on public policy
2. deterministic approach to public policy
3. de jure nature of public policy
4. Public Administration as a public
energy field
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 4 only
d. 1 and 4
e. **
112. Consider the following statements in
respect of new public management:
1. It aims at economy, efficiency and
effectiveness.
2. It emphasizes on the vital role of the
market as against the State as the key
regulator of society and economy.
3. Government is the major doer of
public activities.
4. It supports the various concepts and
principles of traditional Public
Administration.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4
e. a
113. According to Chris Argyris, which one of
the following situations is a positive
hindrance in facilitating coordination in an
organization?
a. Hierarchical coercion
b. Standardized procedures
c. Grapevine communication
d. Administrative planning
e. **
114. Consider the following paradigms in the
evolution of the discipline of Public
Administration as proposed by Nicholas
Henry:
1. Politics/Administration dichotomy
2. Public Administration as political
science
3. Public Administration as management
4. Principles of administration
5. Public Administration as Public
Administration
Which one of the following is the correct
order of the above?
a. 2—1—4—5—3
b. 1—4—2—3—5
c. 4—2—1—5—3
d. 1—4—3—2—5
e. b
115. Which one of the following is not
identified by Nicholas Henry as a factor
for organizational change?
a. Process of adaptation
b. Task environment
c. Technology of organization
d. Organization behaviour
e. d
116. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
The principle of hierarchy is at the
foundation of all government departments
because the principle
a. involves superior-subordinate
relationship as applicable to
government agencies
b. gives scope for delegation of authority
from a superior to a subordinate officer
c. facilitates reporting from lower level to
higher level
d. is best suited for horizontal type of
organizations required in development
administration
e. d
117. Who among the following have supported
the application of the principle of unity of
command?
1. Henri Fayol
2. Gulick and Urwick
3. Seckler and Hudson
4. Herbert Simon
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
e. a
118. Under which of the following grounds is
the principle of unity of command
criticized?
1. Creation of large number of staff and
auxiliary agencies has diluted this
concept.
2. The concept of one single boss for
each person is seldom found in
complex governmental situations.
3. People in an organization have fixed
responsibilities for their functions.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. a
119. Who among the following has urged that
strict adherence to rules results in the
displacement of goals?
a. Robert K. Merton
b. Alvin Gouldner
c. Chester Barnard
d. Peter M. Blau
e. a
120. On which of the following does span of
control depend?
1. Personality of the superior
2. Nature of work to be supervised
3. Age of the organization
4. Calibre of the subordinates
5. Delegation of authority
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
b. 3, 4 and 5 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
e. d
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